Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Written Test Sample Questions

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Written Test Sample Questions

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions

1. Which of the following can be said about the King’s subjects ?
1. They were all prosperous and could afford fine clothes.
2. They had lost confidence in the King’s ability to rule because he had grown old.
3. They often requested the King to marry and start a family.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. When the seed did not germinate after weeks’ efforts why did the farmer’s son change the soil ?
(A) He was persevering by nature
(B) He spent his spare time gardening instead of playing
(C) He loved gardening but was no good at it
(D) He wasted his opportunity to be King
(E) He was the King’s favourite subject
Ans : (A)

3. Why did the King choose the farmer’s son as Gandhara’s future King ?
(A) The King realised that he had a good character and would make a worthy ruler
(B) He knew that he could easily manipulate the farmer’s son
(C) He felt sorry for the farmer’s son and wanted to give him an opportunity
(D) To reward his honesty in not asking his parents for help to grow the plant
(E) He was the one who pointed out the King’s mistake of distributing roasted seeds
Ans : (A)

4. Why did the King distribute seeds to the children of his Kingdom ?
(A) To share his love of gardening with them
(B) To make sure that the future ruler had respect for all living things
(C) It was a test to select the child most suited to be the next ruler
(D) To see if they were ambitious and competed fairly
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. Why did the children bring beautiful plants to the palace ?
(A) They wanted to gift them to the King for his garden
(B) It was a sign of affection for the King who was retiring
(C) Their parents had forced them to present flowers to the King
(D) To show the King they were more suited than the farmer’s son to rule
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. What excuse did the farmer’s son give for not being able to grow a plant successfully ?
(A) His father had refused to help him
(B) The soil and fertilizer he had used were not suitable
(C) He had shifted the seed while it was growing
(D) There was something wrong with the seed
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. What was worrying the King’s subjects ?
(A) The King was too old to bear the burden of running a kingdom
(B) The King devoted too much time to gardening
(C) The King was sick and could die at any time
(D) The King had no heir to the throne
(E) The King had selected a farmer’s son to be their King
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The King deliberately roasted the seeds as he did not want to give up his throne
(B) The King regarded honesty as an important trait for a ruler
(C) Only boys were given the opportunity to prove they were worthy to rule
(D) The King was angry that the farmer’s son had come empty handed
(E) The farmer knew why the seed given to his son would not grow
Ans : (B)

9. What made the King unhappy with the children ?
1. They had not realised that the seeds he had given them were roasted.
2. They had cheated by allowing their parents to grow their plants.
3. Since they had successfully grown plants he was forced to choose one of them as King.
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. How did the farmer deal with the fact that his son had not been able to grow anything ?
(A) Being a farmer he was ashamed that his son could not cultivate a healthy plant
(B) He was understanding, as it was impossible to grow a plant in three months
(C) He was disappointed because his son would not get the chance to be King
(D) He was sympathetic because his son had worked very hard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
11. Ignoring
(A) Unaware
(B) Delaying
(C) Disregarding
(D) Humiliating
(E) Lacking
Ans : (C)

12. Enveloped
(A) Surrounded
(B) Included
(C) Wrapped
(D) Closed
(E) Hid
Ans : (C)

13. Piled
(A) Handled
(B) Poured
(C) Utilised
(D) Provided
(E) Drowned
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
14. Content
(A) Pitying
(B) Miserable
(C) Sorrow
(D) Unlucky
(E) Unfortunate
Ans : (B)

15. Avid
(A) Unenthusiastic
(B) Efficient
(C) Boring
(D) Impartial
(E) Incompetent
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) When this boy was twelve years old he attended a party given by his parents.
(2) A boy was considered a dunce and his usual place in class was standing in a corner as punishment.
(3) The boy timidly quoted the rest of the poem and named the author.
(4) The guest, a famous writer, was delighted and said “You are a bright boy who will achieve a lot one
day”.
(5) This one word of encouragement changed the boy’s life—he went on to become a famous poet.
(6) One of the guests saw two lines of poetry underneath a painting and wanted to know who the poet was,
but no one knew.
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. It is impossible (A) to complete (B) the entire (C) project within the specified (D) time frame. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

22. The Government is certain (A) to amend (B) the law to prevail (C) the crisis. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

23. Except (A) for a few, the majority (B) of our staff has been recruited (C) locally. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. They patiently (A) explained (B) the procedure (C) for appling (D) for a loan to the villagers. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. One can succeed (A) in business unless (B) one is prepared (C) to take risks. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
26. Inspite of trying his best, Karthik delivered whatever he had promised.
(A) was unable to deliver what
(B) delivered none of
(C) could not deliver
(D) cannot deliver however
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. It was very hot last year that the roads used to be empty in the afternoon.
(A) being so hot
(B) was so hot
(C) had been very hot
(D) was much hotter
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

28. The salaries we pay our employees are equal the ones that commercial banks pay theirs.
(A) are equally like
(B) were a like
(C) is similar to
(D) are equivalent to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

29. To develop their problem solving skills trainees are encouraged to analyse situations and came to
its own solutions.
(A) come up with their
(B) came forward with their
(C) come down with its
(D) come with its
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

30. Overcoming obstacles in the course of her job giving her a lot of Self-confidence.
(A) is given her
(B) she has been given
(C) will give her
(D) by giving her
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. Rajiv is the best person (A) / to advise you since (B) / he faced plenty of difficulty (C) / while setting up his business. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

32. The University that (A) / I taught was (B) / located on the (C) / outskirts of the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. Most of my (A) / co-workers have been (B) / transferred to various (C) / neighbourly districts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

34. Though my father spent (A) / a lot of money on (B) / our education he refused to (C) / give us no pocket money. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. Often ideas and concepts (A) / are passed on from (B) / one generation to the next (C) / without being questioned. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

36. Funds that are collected (A) / in the morning has (B) / to be disbursed as (C) / new loans by afternoon. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

37. Your promotion depends (A) / on the number of (B) / projects your handling (C) / during the year. (D)
No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. Our team has spent (A) / the night entirely (B) / awake trying to decide (C) / what strategy to adopt.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. I have finally managed (A) / to convince my parents (B) / to allow myself (C) / to study abroad. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (C)

40. When he took a loan (A) / for the first time (B) / he was so nervous that (C) / he repay it early. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
One day my son called me after his exams. I could make out from his voice that he was …41… “The exam did not go so well. It was not that I did not know but I made a careless mistake.” I tried to …42… him saying, “Don’t worry, you will do better next time”. He was not pleased to hear my words. “You don’t realize how competitive it is here and how difficult it is to …43… anything.”
A few days later I got another call from him. “A …44… thing happened”, he said. “When I got my paper I saw that I had …45… marks for the question I had answered incorrectly. My friends …46… me to keep quiet as the Professor must have made a mistake. But you taught me the value of honesty so I emailed him saying I did not …47… the marks.” His reply was more surprising. “It was …48,” he said. “My interaction with you throughout the year …49… me that you knew how to solve the problem. That is the reason I gave you those marks.” I was happier about my son’s …50… than his marks.
41. (A) Bother
(B) Sad
(C) Unwell
(D) Distress
(E) Confused
Ans : (B)

42. (A) Pity
(B) Forgive
(C) Console
(D) Cheer
(E) Sympathise
Ans : (C)

43. (A) Strive
(B) Triumph
(C) Succeed
(D) Want
(E) Achieve
Ans : (E)

44. (A) Thrilled
(B) Routine
(C) Disastrous
(D) Funny
(E) Different
Ans : (D)

45. (A) Assigned
(B) Awarded
(C) Obtain
(D) Received
(E) Given
Ans : (E)

46. (A) Suggested
(B) Advised
(C) Warn
(D) Made
(E) Recommended
Ans : (B)

47. (A) Deserve
(B) Qualify
(C) Need
(D) Receive
(E) Justify
Ans : (A)

48. (A) Knowing
(B) Mistaken
(C) Oversight
(D) Deliberate
(E) Intend
Ans : (D)

49. (A) Persuade
(B) Merited
(C) Convinced
(D) Proved
(E) Informed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) Value
(B) Moral
(C) Truth
(D) Honesty
(E) Potential
Ans : (D)

Read full here

TISS Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers | Tata Institute of Social Sciences PG Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers

TISS Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers | Tata Institute of Social Sciences Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers

SECTION – A
Marks: 15
ANALYTICAL AND NUMERICAL ABILITY
1. In the set of 5 figures below which four are of the same type?

A) D, E, B, A (B) C, B, A, E
(C) A, D, C, E (D) B, C, A, D
2. Below is a series, which of the options provided will continue the series?

3. Which pattern can be folded to make the cube shown in the figure below?

4. Monu was cooking on a gas stove.His cylinder exhausted at the end of the 7th minute, and he finished cooking in the 18th minute by shifting to a kersone stove immediately. He can finish cooking in 14 minutes on a gas stove. How much time will he take to cook on a kerosene stove?
(A) 20 minutes (B) 14 minutes
(C) 16 minutes (D) 22 minutes
5. A container of mixed juice contains 1/3rd of orange juice, 20 ml of water and 40 ml of sweet lime (Mausambi) juice. What is the total volume of the mixed juice?
(A) 120ml (B) 90ml
(C) 80ml (D) 150ml
6. An article brings half the cost price as profit. What is its selling price?
(A) 2 times the profit (B) 4 times the profit
(C) 3 times the profit (D) Cannot be found
7. A 2 digit number when divided by 5 leaves a remainder 3. If the number is a prime number, what is the possible number?
(A) 18 (B) 33
(C) 73 (D) 93
8. The syllabus for Maths, Chemistry and Physics exams include 12, 13 and 12 chapters respectively. The Chemistry syllabus was reduced so that the average chapters per subject was 12. By how many chapters was the Chemistry syllabus reduced?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
9. ABCD is a parallelogram with one of its angles equal to 900. Its diagonal is 10cm and one of its sides is equal to 8cm. What is the length of the other side in this parallelogram?
(A) 6 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 4 cm (D) 10 cm
10. Choose the option that logically continues the series
30. 37, 49, 73, 109, ____
(A) 157 (B) 133
(C) 121 (D) 145
11. Below are two statements are followed by two possible inferences. Choose the correct option.
Statements: All students stay in the hostel. Some of the students are intelligent. So,
Inferences: A Every student is intelligent.
B All the intelligent students stay in the hostel.
(A) Only inference A follows (B) Only inference B follows
(C) Both inference A and B follow (D) Neither inference A nor B follows
For Questions 12-15: Two friends A and M, working in a company, get an equal salary
of Rs 20,000 per month. Given below is the salary utilisation of both A and M in a
month.

12. What percentage of their salary do A and M spend on electricity respectively?
(A) 5% & 25 % (B) 15% & 20%
(C) 20% & 15% (D) 25% & 15%
13. By what percentage are A’s savings less than that of M?
(A) 25% B) 66.66%
(C) 40% (D) 20%
14. M cuts down the shopping expenses to zero for a particular month and saves that money. What will be the percentage savings of M for that particular month?
(A) 20% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 40%
15. A reduces transportation expenditure to Rs. 2000 to save money. Which of the following must hold TRUE?
(A) The percentage decrease in transportation expenditure of A is 25%.
(B) A’s salary has been reduced to Rs. 18000.
(C) A’s savings now become equal to M’s savings.
(D) A has sold the car.
SECTION – B
Marks: 15
Marks: 20
LANGUAGE ABILITY
For Questions 16-20: Please read the passage below and answer the questions that follow Towards the end of the 17th century, the British East India Company exported Indian fabrics to other countries. According to a French traveller of the 17th century, “the Indian cotton fabrics clothed everyone – from Cape of Good Hope to China, man and woman, from head to foot”. Before the introduction of mechanised spinning in the early 19th century, all Indian cottons and silks were only hand woven. Preserved in museums around the world, are samples of Indian handmade fabrics, including that found in the ruins of Mohenjodaro. But many expressions of this traditional skill – Sambalpuri of Orissa, Jamdhani of West Bengal, Leheria of Gujarat, Paithan of Maharashtra, Ikkat of Andhra Pradesh and the triple-ply silks of Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu) – are vibrantly alive today. Though every state is home to a range of unique fabrics in hundreds of designs, colours and textures, Indian fabrics constitute less than 2 per cent of the world textile trade.
16. The Indian fabrics referred to in the passage are …
(A) All hand woven / hand made
(B) Usually made of silk and cotton
(C) All of antique value
(D) All of the above
17. The expression ‘fabrics clothed everyone … from head to toe’ appears in the passage. This refers to …
(A) Clothes which fit well.
(B) A cloth that can completely cover a person’s body
(C) Clothing made for all parts of the body.
(D) None of the above.
18. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
(A) India, even today, makes hand woven fabrics.
(B) India stopped making hand woven fabrics in the early19th century.
(C) Kancheepuram is famous for Leheria fabrics.
(D) French travellers exported Indian fabrics in the 17th century
19. From the passage one can infer that…
(A) In the 17th century, a lot of French people visited India.
(B) At some point in history, Indian fabrics were popular across the world.
(C) Indian fabrics have not been able to keep up with the changes in international
fashion.
(D) If not for the British, Indian fabrics would never have been exported to other
countries.
20. According to the author, which of the following is a reason for the low percentage
contribution of Indian fabrics to world textile trade?
(A) Indian fabrics do not have much variety in terms of colour and texture.
(B) Indian fabrics are mostly handmade and hence not up to international standards.
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
For Questions 21 and 22: Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blank in the
sentences:
21. I have ______________ her name for the post.
(A) recommended (B) commended
(C) demonstrated (D) distressed
22. Due to delayed monsoons, prices of vegetables have risen ________. This has made
certain vegetables unaffordable to the common man.
(A) immediately (B) exponentially
(C) eventfully (D) simultaneously
23. Choose the option so that each pair of words is related in the similar manner.
Poem : Sculpture :: Pen : _____
(A) Chisel (B) Tool
(C) Sculptor (D) Rock
For Questions 24 and 25: Choose the most appropriate option of two words, to fill the
two blanks in the sentences.
24. She received a standing ______ for her _____ performance.
(A) ovation … dull (B) claps … immense
(C) provocation … deliberate (D) ovation … enchanting
25. I am ______ to ______ home.
(A) going … go (B) planning … rush
(C) seeing … buy (D) run … going
For Questions 26, 27 and 28: Choose the option that contains a grammatically incorrect sentence.
26. (A) Wild flowers often grow around the well near to the temple.
(B) Wild flowers often growing around the well near the temple.
(C) Wild flowers often growing around the well near to the temple.
(D) Wild flowers often grow around the well near the temple.
27. (A) Why he is talking rudely always?
(B) Why does he always talk rudely?
(C) Why does he always talk so rude?
(D) Why he is talking rudely always?
28. (A) Did you remember to take the keys?
(B) Did you remember taking the keys?
(C) Do you remembered taking the keys?
(D) Do you remember to take up the keys?
For Questions 29 and 30: Given are sets of sentences. They need to be arranged in a
sequence to form a coherent paragraph. Pick the option which gives the best sequence.
29. A Raag expresses the structure of the melody.
B Taal concerns itself with rhythm.
C There are more than 200 such Raags in Hindustani classical music.
D Raag and Taal are the fundamental elements of Hindustani classical music.
(A) ABCD (B) BADC
(C) DABC (D) DACB
30. A However, all of these have made the greatest impact in the last century.
B Throughout this expansion, new technologies have been integrated into the mainstream.
C Since its development, roughly 10,000 years ago, agriculture has expanded
vastly in geographical coverage and yield.
D Agricultural practices such as irrigation, crop rotation, fertilizers, and pesticides were also developed over the centuries.
(A) CDBA (B) DBAC
(C) CBDA (D) DBAC
For Questions 31 and 32: Choose the word that is different from the remaining words.
31. (A) Relation (B) Characteristic
(C) Trait (D) Attribute
32. (A) Sympathy (B) Empathy
(C) Apathy (D) Understanding
33. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the words/phrases that is highlighted in the sentence.
This shopkeeper goes an extra mile to ensure that customers get the benefits of all special schemes.
(A) does more than expected
(B) shies away from physical labour
(C) makes no effort
(D) None of the above
34. Read the paragraph and select the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. The earliest forms of pottery discovered in the Indus valley date back to around 5000BC. These are similar to baskets in shape and most of the designs on these vessels are identical to woven motifs on earlier baskets. These decorative motifs were not just for ornamentation, but definitely had some ritual significance.
(A) Indus valley had designs similar to woven motifs on everything including its pottery and these had ritual significance.
(B) The pottery in the Indus valley had ritual significance.
(C) The earliest forms of pottery in the Indus valley had a basket shape and designs similar to woven motifs having ritual significance.
(D) Indus valley’s earliest pottery was made around 5000BC and was of basket shape which was of ritual significance.
35. Choose the option that best replaces the highlighted part in the sentence.
The budget for this project being low has become an issue for the director.
(A) The budget for this project being low (B) The project’s budget being low
(C) The project’s low budget (D) This low budget project

SECTION – C
Marks: 15
AWARENESS OF GENERAL AND SOCIAL ISSUES
36. Which of the following rivers is called the sorrow of Bihar?
(A) Gandaki (B) Kosi
(C) Bramhaputra (D) Mahananda
37. UNESCO is a United Nations agency. UNESCO stands for ________________.
(A) United Nations Environmental, Social and Cultural Organisation
(B) United Nations Ecological, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(C) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(D) United Nations Educational, Social and Cultural Organisation
38. Which of the following has never held the position of the Chief Justice of India?
(A) V. N. Khare (B) Y. K. Sabharwal
(C) R. C. Lahoti (D) R. S. Sarkaria
39. In his book, “On the origin of species”, Charles Darwin proposed that all species had evolved through a process of ______________.
(A) Divine creation (B) Coincidental breeding
(C) Natural selection (D) Natural diversification
40. A mammal named “Dolly” was the first mammal to be successfully cloned from an adult cell. Dolly was a _______.
(A) Lab mouse (B) Chimpanzee
(C) Orangutan (D) Sheep
41. Who out of the following, never visited the Indian subcontinent?
(A) Hsüan-tsang from China (B) Queen Victoria of United Kingdom
(C) Alexander the Great of Macedon (D) Ghengis Khan of Mongolia
42. As of the year 2009, which of the following words appear in the preamble to the Constitution of India?
(A) Empire (B) Socialist
(C) Welfare state (D) Both B and C
43. ______________ is the highest wind energy producing state in the country.
(A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) None of the above.
44. India Gate is located at _____________ while the Gateway of India is located at
________________.
(A) Mumbai, Agra (B) Mumbai, New Delhi
(C) New Delhi, Mumbai (D) New Delhi, Khyber Pass
45. India’s GDP growth during the financial year 2008-09 was ____________.
(A) 8.1% – 9% (B) 7.1% – 8%
(C) 6.1% – 7% (D) 5.1% – 6%
46. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is ____________.
(A) a programme for universalisation of educational content in all primary schools.
(B) a programme for ensuring that everyone irrespective of age or gender has access to education.
(C) a programme for universalisation of elementary education.
(D) Both A and C.
47. The 2016 Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in ____________.
(A) Chicago (B) Rio de Janeiro
(C) Madrid (D) Tokyo
48. What was the name of the organization founded and run by Mother Teresa?
(A) Sisters of Loreto (B) Sisters of Charity
(C) Loreto Convent (D) Missionaries of Charity
49. 28) Ramon Magsaysay – after whom the Magsaysay awards are named – belonged to _______________.
(A) United States of America (B) People’s Republic of China
(C) Republic of the Philippines (D) Republic of India
50. Which, out of the following civil services fall under the category of All India Services?
(A) Indian Administrative Service (B) Indian Police Service
(C) Indian Forest Service (D) All of the above

Download TISS Master Degree Entrance Exam Question Papers
tiss master degree entrance exam model question papers, tiss master degree entrance exam syllabus, tiss master degree entrance exam question papers, tiss master degree entrance exam part I syllabus, tiss master degree entrance exam part II syllabus, tiss master degree entrance exam papers, tiss master degree entrance exam part I papers, tiss master degree entrance exam part II papers, Tata Institute of Social Sciences pg entrance exam syllabus, Tata Institute of Social Sciences pg entrance exam papers

Read full here

APPSC Group 1 Prelims Exam 2011 Solved Paper | APPSC Group I Prelim Exam 2011 Answer Key | APPSC Group I Prelims Exam Paper 2011

APPSC Group 1 Prelims Exam 2011 Solved Paper | APPSC Group I Prelim Exam 2011 Answer Key | APPSC Group I Prelims Exam Paper 2011



1. The total Solar eclipse of the 21st Century occurred on:

1) 20th July, 2009

2) 21st July, 2009

3) 22nd July, 2009

4) 23rd July, 2009



2. The following is the outline map of a country. Identify it:

1) Brazil

2) Mexico

3) Iran

4) Canada



3. The following is the outline map of a State in India. Identify it :



1) Orissa

2) Uttar Pradesh

3) Tamil Nadu

4) Karnataka



4. The following is the outline map of a District in Andhra Pradesh.

Identify

1) Karimnagar

2) Khammam

3) Guntur

4) Anantapur

5. The outer layer of the earth is known as :

1) Mantle

2) Core

3) Cirrus

4) Crust



6. Which one of the following is the major Ocean of the world?

1) Indian Ocean

2) Atlantic Ocean

3) Pacific Ocean

4) Arctic Ocean



7. Latitudes are imaginary lines drawn parallel to the Equator and run

from :

1) North to South

2) East to West

3) Arctic circle to North pole

4) South pole to Tropic of cancer



8. Bandipur National Park/Wildlife sanctuary is in :

1) Assam

2) Gujarat

3) Karnataka

4) Tamil Nadu



9. On 21st March and 21st September the Sun’s rays fall directly on :

1) Exosphere

2) Equator

3) Stratosphere

4) Tropic of Capricorn



10. In Andhra Pradesh among the following lead deposits are found in:

1) Kurnool District

2) Nizamabad District

3) Vijayanagaram District

4) Chittoor District



11. The first Coalition Government formed at the Centre was :

1) Janata Government

2) United Front Government

3) National Democratic Government

4) National Front Government



12. The Article 243-G of the Indian Constitution contains :

1) The financial resources of Panchayat Raj Bodies

2) The functions of the Nyaya Panchayats

3) The powers and functions of Village Panchayats

4) The powers of chairpersons of Zilla Parishads and Mandal

Parishads



13. Gandhiji launched his first Satyagraha is South Africa in the year :

1) 1905

2) 1906

3) 1915

4) 1916



14. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act resulted in the :

1) Readjustment of Lok Sabha Constituencies

2) Prohibition of Members of Parliament to hold offices of profit

3) Increase in the number of languages in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution

4) Limiting the size of the cabinet at the centre and state levels to 10 percent of the total strength of the respective lower houses



15. The method which became popular in recent past for employing persons for various jobs in the public as well as private sectors is :

1) Contract appointments

2) Emergency recruitment

3) Outsourcing

4) On-line recruitment



16. Sustainable development exactly means :

1) Improving the conditions of present generation without affecting the needs of future generation

2) Development that percoloates to the bottom level sections in the society

3) Development with social justice

4) Development that lasts for a long time



17. President Rule was imposed in Andhra Pradesh in 1973 because of:

1) Telangana agitation

2) Jai Andhra Movement

3) Political instability

4) Failure of Constitutional Machinery



18. The lowest number of seats won by the Congress Party in the

Andhra Pradesh State Assembly Elections held in the year :

1) 1983

2) 1985

3) 1994

4) 1999



19. The name of the Programme recently introduced by Government of Andhra Pradesh to merge all the anti-poverty programmes into a single integrated scheme is :

1) Velugu

2) Indira Prabha

3) Rajiv Gandhi Pragathi Patham

4) Indira Kranthi Pathakam



20. Providing microfinance arrangements to the poor women for extension of credit along with thrift-type of saving schemes is through :

1) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana

2) Self-Help Groups

3) National Rural Employment Programme

4) Indira Prabha



21. Minimum support prices for food crops to the Union Government is recommended by :

1) Agricultural Commission

2) Ministry of Agriculture

3) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

4) Food Corporation of India



22. The duration of medium term agricultural credit is :

1) 15 months to 5 years

2) 5 years to 10 years

3) less than 3 months

4) 3 months to 6 months



23. Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation lies between :

1) –1 to +1

2) –1 to 0

3) 0 to 1

4) 1 to 100



24. Saving is :

1) the major determinant of growth

2) the only determinant of growth

3) one of the determinants of growth

4) not concerned with growth



25. Which of the following descriptions does not explain VAT as per its conceptualisation?

1) It will diminish revenue buoyancy

2) It is a harmonised commodity taxation regime

3) Its effects are non-cascading

4) It is a self-enforcing system



26. Heavy Sector Strategy is associated with the name of :

1) Brahmananda

2) Mahalanobis

3) Bhagwati

4) Chakravarti



27. A stable macroeconomy contributes to global integration through the :

1) Ability to withstand shocks

2) Use of prices as signals

3) High returns from education

4) Creation of financial discipline



28. One of the key elements of India’s market based developmental strategy is :

1) No Government intervention

2) Investment in physical capital

3) Integration with the global economy

4) A rapidly changing macroeconomy



29. The Comptroller and Auditor General submits his Annual Report regarding the Centre to :

1) The Prime Minister

2) The President

3) The Parliament

4) The Chairman of the Planning Commission



30. The Regional Rural Bank is a bank sponsored by :

1) Reserve Bank of India

2) Ministry of Finance

3) NABARD

4) Scheduled Commercial Bank



31. Alfred Noble is associated with the invention of :

1) Cosmic rays

2) Dynamite

3) Dynamo

4) Penicillin



32. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is :

1) 365 days

2) 30 days

3) 1 day

4) 12 hours



33. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of :

1) Calcium sulphate

2) Calcium bicarbonate

3) Sodium bicarbonate

4) Magnesium bicarbonate



34. The Greenhouse effect deals with :

1) Cooling of lower atmosphere

2) Warming of upper atmosphere

3) Cooling of upper atmosphere

4) Warming of lower atmosphere



35. Pace-maker is related to :

1) heart

2) lung

3) liver

4) kidney



36. Inertia is the property of :

1) force

2) strength

3) mass

4) volume



37. Tea will cool most easily in :

1) glass cup

2) metal cup

3) clay cup

4) porcelain cup



38. When there is no external force acts on a system of particles, the

velocity of centre of mass of the system will be :

1) increased

2) decreased

3) zero

4) constant



39. If the momentum of a body is increased by 100%, th kinetic energy will be increased by :

1) 300%

2) 200%

3) 100%

4) 50%



40. The colour given by excess Lithium in Lithium Chloride solid is :

1) Violet

2) Green

3) Pink

4) Yellow



41. Sodium benzoate is used as a :

1) flavouring agent

2) preservative

3) colouring agent

4) antacid



42. The element used in Integrated circuits of computers is :

1) Iron

2) Magnesium

3) Aluminium

4) Silicon



43. Brass is an alloy of :

1) Copper and Aluminium

2) Copper and Tin

3) Copper and Zinc

4) Copper and Nickel



44. Blood is a :

1) Solution

2) Colloid

3) Emulsion

4) Gel



45. Mosquito repellents contain mainly :

1) calcium dihydrogen phosphate

2) potassium hydrogen phosphate

3) sodium hydrogen sulphate

4) ammonium bicarbonate



46. The economically useful part in Ginger is :

1) Bulb

2) Fruit

3) Rhizome

4) Root



47. The edible part of coffee seed is :

1) Tapetum

2) Mace

3) Caruncle

4) Perisperm



48. Lutein is a/an :

1) Blue coloured pigment

2) Yellow coloured pigment

3) Brown coloured pigment

4) Orange coloured pigment



49. In the area of Biotechnology enzyme that is produced commercially both from plants and microbes is :

1) Papain

2) Trypsin

3) Protease

4) Amylase



50. Plants that grow in seashores are called as :

1) Halophytes

2) Hydrophytes

3) Xerophytes

4) Psammophytes



51. The study of animal behaviour is called as :

1) Etymology

2) Ethology

3) Ecology

4) Euphenics



52. Vitamin related with production of antibodies is :

1) B6

2) B12

3) B1

4) B2



53. Serological tests have enormous value in the process of :

1) Classification

2) Identification

3) Diversity

4) Code of nomenclature



54. Pearls are the products from :

1) Annelids

2) Arthropods

3) Poriferans

4) Molluscs



55. Siphoning type of mouth parts are present in :

1) Mosquito

2) Cockroach

3) Butterfly

4) Housefly



56. The space shuttle launched by NASA in November, 2009 was :

1) Atlantis

2) Challenger

3) Columbia

4) Discovery



57. The United Nations Climate Change Conference, 2009 was concluded in :

1) Poland

2) Denmark

3) China

4) Japan



58. Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following has been included in the UNESCO’s Memory of World Register?

1) Mahabharata

2) Ramayana

3) Rigveda

4) Abhidhamma Pitaka



59. In February, 2009, the first model e-COurt in India was launched by the :

1) High Court of Gujarat

2) High Court of Tamil Nadu

3) High Court of Himachal Pradesh

4) High Court of Andhra Pradesh



60. Global Campaign ’350′ was observed as an International Day for Climate Action on :

1) 25th October, 2009

2) 30th October, 2009

3) 14th October, 2009

4) 24th October, 2009



61. The Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation Model of Economic Development assigns a key role to the :

1) Foreign Direct Investment

2) Information Technology

3) Private Sector

4) Public-Private partnership



62. The bulk of the business relating to the Indian Stock Market is handled by the :

1) Reserve Bank of India

2) Bombay Stock Exchange

3) National Stock Exchange

4) International Stock Exchange



63. Achievement of the growth rate of 9.5% is/was the target of :

1) Ministry of Finance

2) Eleventh Five Year Plan

3) Tenth Five Year Plan

4) Planning Commission



64. The recent statement made by the Indian Prime Minister that the Higher Education in India can be developed through adopting approach of :

1) Privatisation

2) Involvement of Foreign Providers

3) Earmaking 60% of the national income for higher education

4) Public-Private partnership



65. The crisis of which impelled the Central Government to introduce far reaching reforms in the country’s economy in 1990-1991 was :

1) Balance of payments crisis

2) Crisis in Public Sector

3) Financial crisis

4) Foreign exchange



66. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the woman related to the man?

1) Sister

2) Niece

3) Aunt

4) Mother



67. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following?

1) Rashi

2) Monika

3) Abha

4) Sulekha



68. Which two months in a year have the same calendar?

1) April, June

2) January, December

3) April, July

4) June, October



69. Rahul ranks tenth from the top and thirty-fourth from the bottom in

a class. How many students are there in the class?

1) 45

2) 43

3) 46

4) 44



70. Arrange the following items from general to particular :

a) Animal

b) Feline

c) Leopard

d) Mammal

e) Vertebrate

f) Cat

1) adcbef

2) acedbf

3) abcdef

4) aedbcf



71. In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English while 3 of them read none of these two. How many of them read both French and English?

1) 0

2) 3

3) 4

4) 5



72. Find the missing character from among the alternatives



1) 9

2) 12

3) 18

4) 6



73. What is always in worry?

1) Non-Cooperation

2) Unrest

3) Poignancy

4) Difficulty



74. Identify the odd one in the following :

1) Hinduism

2) Christianity

3) Zoroastrianism

4) Islam



75. What does the following sign indicate?



1) Hospital

2) First Aid

3) Cross Road

4) No Parking



76. If these letters RIDANI DINAGM rearranged, it would be the name of a :

1) Political leader

2) President

3) Governor

4) Actor



77. If KNOWLEDGE is coded as ’256535475′ the ‘GENERAL’ is coded as :

1) 7545993

2) 7969393

3) 7555912

4) 7555913



78. ‘Gas’ is to ‘Pipe’ as ‘Electricity’ is to :

1) Current

2) Switch

3) Wire

4) Regulator



79. Mention the sport/game with which the term Mashie is most

closely associated :

1) High Jump

2) Golf

3) Volleyball

4) Kho-Kho



80. Mention the term with which the game Chess is closely associated:

1) Castle

2) Home Run

3) Mashie

4) Raider



81. Identify the name of the creator of the popular fictional character

Lord Voldemort :

1) Eoin Coulfer

2) J.K. Rowling

3) Salman Rushdie

4) Edgar Rice Burroughs



82. Identify the name of the popular fictional character created by Edgar Rice Burroughs :

1) Feluda

2) Hercule Poirot

3) Tarzan

4) Gandalf



83. The slogan of State Bank of India is :

1) With you all the way

2) A tradition of trust

3) Trusted family Bank

4) Care at every stage of life



84. Identify the following Emblem :



1) Union Public Service Commission

2) Government of Andhra Pradesh

3) University Grants Commission

4) National Council of Educational Research and Training



85. The following Emblem indicates :



1) Indian Bank

2) Canara Bank

3) Syndicate Bank

4) Andhra Bank



87. ‘Body’ includes ‘limb’ as ‘tree’ includes :

1) Seed

2) Wood

3) Branch

4) Soil



88. A train is travelling at a speed of 120 km per hour. How long will

it take to travel 10 kms?

1) 5 minutes

2) 10 minutes

3) 10 minutes

4) 15 minutes



89. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 36 sums in all, how many did he solve correctly?

1) 18

2) 24

3) 9

4) 12



90. Rearrange the letters SESTA to make meaningful word :

1) Sets

2) Asset

3) Tests

4) Tseas



91. Who known as the Plato of the Jat tribe?

1) Churaman

2) Raja Ram

3) Surajmal

4) Badan Singh



92. After Bengal, the English secured the rights of duty free trade in the dominions of :

1) Nawab of Awadh

2) The Nizam of Hyderabad

3) Raja of Banaras

4) The Jats of Bharatpur



93. ‘Madhura Vijayam’ was composed by :

1) Molla

2) Gangadevi

3) Ramabhadramba

4) Madhuravani



94. The Vernacular Press Act was passed during the tenure of :

1) Warren Hastings

2) Bentinck

3) Lytton

4) Curzon



95. The founder of the Servants of India Society was :

1) Dadabhai Naoroji

2) Gopalkrishna Gokhale

3) M.G. Ranade

4) Balgangadhar Tilak



96. Who was popularly called as Andhra Shivaji?

1) Duggirala Gopala Krishnaiah

2) Kanneganti Hanumanthu

3) Konda Venkatappaiah

4) P. Veerayya Chowdary



97. The first Indian King who abdicated his throne, was :

1) Chandragupta I

2) Asoka

3) Chandragupta Maurya

4) Samudragupta



98. The founder of Nalanda University was :

1) Kumaragupta

2) Samudragupta

3) Asoka

4) Nalanda



99. Who defeated Harsha and assumed the title ‘Parameshwar’?

1) Pulakesin I

2) Pulakesin II

3) Mahendravarman I

4) Mahendravarman II



100.Jahangir’s Court was visited by the English trader, namely :

1) Daniel

2) Christofer

3) Sir William John

4) Sir Thomas Roe



101.What was the childhood name of Nur Jahan?

1) Bahu Begam

2) Bharagal Nisha

3) Maharul Nisa

4) Mumtaj



102.Which Governor-General is associated with the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?

1) Cornwallis

2) Ripon

3) Curzon

4) Dalhousie



103. When was the Hyderabad State Congress formed?

1) 1938

2) 1935

3) 1932

4) 1929



104. The Direct Action Day observed by the Muslim League was on :

1) August 12, 1946

2) August 15, 1946

3) August 16, 1946

4) August 15, 1947



105. The ‘Kurnool Circular’ was issued by the State Congress leaders during :

1) Vandemataram Movement

2) Quit India Movement

3) Salt Satyagraha

4) Non-Cooperation Movement



106. On the Western end of Lake Ontario the chief iron and steel producer is :

1) Hamilton

2) Sydney

3) Trenton

4) Regina



107.The Tweed Valley is located in :

1) Bradford

2) Leeds

3) Scotland

4) Huddersfield



108.The highest peak in Australia is :

1) Mt. Ossa

2) Mt. Woodroppe

3) Mt. Bruce

4) Mt. Kosciuska



109. The largest bauxite field of Australia is located at :

1) Grove

2) Weipa

3) Orange

4) Victoria



110. Nikopol deposits of Ukraine consists of :

1) Manganese

2) Chromite

3) Copper

4) Nickel



111.The region between Kunlun mountains and the Alyn Tagh is called:

1) Mongolian plateau

2) Dzungarian Basin

3) Tsaidam Basin

4) Tarim Basin



112.The chief centre for tin smelting in South-east Asia is :

1) Java

2) Sumatra

3) Myanmar

4) Singapore



113.The name of highest mountain in Africa is :

1) Mt. Cameroon

2) Mt. Kilimanjaro

3) Mt. Elgon

4) Mt. Kenya



114. In India, the annual rainfall variability is above 60% in the State of :

1) Gujarat

2) Arunachal Pradesh

3) Assam

4) Manipur



115.In India among the given states below, in which state Manganese ore production is high?

1) Maharashtra

2) Andhra Pradesh

3) Orissa

4) Karnataka



116. In Andhra Pradesh, the Kesoram Cements is located in the district of :

1) Karimnagar

2) Vijayanagaram

3) Ranga Reddy

4) Kadapa



117.Among the given basins in India, in which basin the groundwater potential is found high?

1) Narmada

2) Krishna

3) Godavari

4) Cauvery



118.Maihan Dam has been constructed across the River :

1) Bokaro

2) Barakar

3) Damodar

4) Konar



119.Nicolaus Copernicus was the 16th Century :

1) Astronomer

2) Mathematician

3) Navigator

4) Philosopher



120.Annapurna, one of the highest mountains in the World is in :

1) India

2) Tibet

3) Bhutan

4) Nepal



121. The Indian girl, who got a rare honour to address World leaders at

the United Nations Summit on Climate Change was :

1) Anjana Sharma

2) Yugratna Srivastava

3) Soumya Bhattacharjee

4) Pratiksha Chakravarthy



122.Chandrayan II is designed jointly by India and :

1) Japan

2) Germany

3) Russia

4) France



123.Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is :

1) S.H. Kapadia

2) A.R. Dave

3) D.S.R. Varma

4) K.G. Balakrishnan



124.India launched the Census, 2011 on :

1) 1st January, 2010

2) 1st February, 2010

3) 1st March, 2010

4) 1st April, 2010



125.The General Elections in Great Britain were held on :

1) 5th May, 2010

2) 6th May, 2010

3) 7th May, 2010

4) 8th May, 2010



126.The ICC World Women’s Twenty-20, Champion 2010 is :

1) India

2) Sri Lanka

3) Australia

4) New Zealand



127. Millennium’s longest Annular Solar eclipse occurred on :

1) 15th January, 2010

2) 16th January, 2010

3) 17th January, 2010

4) 18th January, 2010



128.Agni-I ballistic missile which was test-fired in March, 2010 has a

range of :

1) 300 km

2) 500 km

3) 700 km

4) 900 km



129.Viswanathan Anand won the FIDE World Chess Championship by defeating :

1) Boiko Borisov

2) Veselin Topalov

3) Dinara Safina

4) Ana Ivanovic



130.Shyam Saran of Kalpa village of Kinnaur district was honoured by Navin Chavla, Chief Election Commissioner of India in Himachal Pradesh on 12th June, 2010 as he happened to be :

1) One of the senior citizens of India

2) One of the voters casting his vote in all the elections

3) One of the first few voters of Pre-independent India

4) One of the first few voters of Independent India



131.Swayamsidha Scheme launched in the year 2002 was dedicated to:

1) Women’s Literacy

2) Women’s Health

3) Women’s Empowerment

40 Women’s Welfare



132.The winner of the Gold Medal at the Second World Sand Sculpture Championship is :

1) Sudarsan Pattnaik

2) Someswar Pathak

3) Goutham Prasad

4) Harischandra Mukharjee



133.The Nobel Prize in Literature for 2009 is awarded to :

1) Olivers Williamson

2) Herta Mueller

3) Elinor Ostrom

4) Thomas Steitz



134.The winner of the Spelling Bee Prize, 2010 in Washington held on

4th June 2010 is :

1) Sameer Mishra

2) Kavya Shivashankar

3) Anamika Veeramani

4) Shantanu Srivastav



135.The Sakshara Bharat Scheme introduced by Government of India will be in operation upto :

1) March, 2011

2) March, 2012

3) March, 2015

4) March, 2020



136.The first set of Identify Numbers as per the Unique Identification

Authority of India will be issued in :

1) February, 2011

2) July, 2011

3) January, 2012

4) June, 2012



137.The opening match of the FIFA 2010 World Cup was played

between :

1) South Africa and Mexico

2) South Africa and Nigeria

3) South Africa and America

4) South Africa and England



138.Earth Hour is a global event organised by :

1) Bureau of Energy Efficiency

2) United Nations

3) European Union

4) World Wide Fund for Nature/World Wildlife Fund



139.The 15th Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement was held in :

1) Cuba

2) Egypt

3) Sri Lanka

4) India



140.Smile Pinki, a documentary film won the :

1) Oscar award

2) Nobel award

3) Dada Saheb Phalke award

4) Bhatnagar award



141.In which of the following subjects were the Vedic Aryans not preficient?

1) Astronomy

2) Mathematics

3) Chemistry

4) Medicine



142.Which of the Pallava rulers is known as ‘Vichitrachitta’?

1) Mahendravarman

2) Parameswaravarman

3) Narasimhavarman I

4) Narasimhavarman II



143.Jayapa Senani composed ‘Nrittaratnavali’ during the reign of :

1) Rudradeva

2) Ganapatideva

3) Rudramadevi

4) Pratapa Rudra



144.Harappan people had close external contact with :

1) Iran

2) Egypt

3) Bahrain

4) Mesopotamia



145.Which Vedic text first refers to moneylending?

1) Atharvaveda

2) Yajurveda

3) Satapatha Brahmana

4) Gopatha Brahmana



146.In the Chola Kingdom, a very large village administered as a

single unit was called :

1) Kurram

2) Kottam

3) Nadu

4) Taniyur



147.The state-pormoted canal irrigation system was initiated by :

1) Alauddin Khalji

2) Ghyasuddin Tughlaq

3) Firuz Tughlaq

4) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq



148.The Vijayanagar King who totally withdrew the marriage tax was:

1) Krishnadevaraya

2) Devaraya II

3) Achyutaraya

4) Sadasivaraya



149.The style of vocal Hindustani music which was non-Islamic in

character was :

1) Taraka

2) Khayal

3) Gawwalis

4) Dhrupad



150.At the time of his coronation at Kalanaur the age of Akbar was :

1) Fifteen

2) Fourteen

3) Twenty

4) Eighteen

Read full here

RGUHS M.D / M.S Ayurveda Result May 2011 | RGUHS Karnataka MD Result May 2011 | RGUHS Karnataka M.S Result May 2011 | www.rguhs.ac.in

RGUHS M.D / M.S Ayurveda Result May 2011 | RGUHS Karnataka MD Result May 2011 | RGUHS Karnataka M.S Result May 2011 | www.rguhs.ac.in



Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Science (RGUHS) Karnataka Published M.D / M.S Ayurveda Examination Result May 2011.



M.D / M.S Ayurveda – May – 2011



Candidatewise Result

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] BHAISHAJYAKALPANA

FINAL – MD AYURVEDA [RS] DRAVYAGUNA

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] KAUMARABHRITYA

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] MANOVIJNAN

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] PANCHAKARMA

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] RASASHASTRA

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] ROGANIDAN

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] SAMHITAS

FINAL M.S AYURVEDA [RS] SHALAKYATANTRA

FINAL M.S AYURVEDA [RS] SHALYATANTRA

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] RACHANA SHAREERA

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] AYURVEDA SIDHANTA

FINAL M.D AYURVEDA [RS] SWASTHAVRITTA

Read full here

APGENCO Result 2011 | APGENCO Trainee Assistant Result 2011 | APGENCO Trainee AE Result 2011 | APGENCO JAO Result 2011 | www.apgenco.gov.in

APGENCO Result 2011 | APGENCO Trainee Assistant Result 2011 | APGENCO Trainee AE Result 2011 | APGENCO JAO Result 2011 | www.apgenco.gov.in



The Andhra Pradesh Power Generation Corporation Limited (APGENCO) Published Trainee Assistant Engineer, Trainee Assistant, Trainee Assistant, Trainee Assistant Engineer, Trainee Chemist and Trainee Junior Accounts Officer Examination Result 2011.

Trainee Assistant Engineer (ELECTRICAL)	Trainee Assistant Engineer (ELECTRONICS)	Trainee Assistant Engineer (MECHNICAL)
view results	view results	view results
provisional selection list	provisional selection list	provisional selection list
Community wise cut-off marks
Trainee Assistant Engineer (Civil)	Trainee Chemist	Trainee Junior Accounts Officer
view results	view results	view results
provisional selection list	provisional selection list	provisional selection list

Read full here

HSBTE 6th Semester Exam Results July 2011 | Haryana State Board of Technical Education 6th Semester Exam Result July 2011 | www.hsbte.org

HSBTE 6th Semester Exam Results July 2011 | Haryana State Board of Technical Education 6th Semester Exam Result July 2011 | www.hsbte.org



Haryana State Board of Technical Education (HSBTE) Publlished 6th Semester Examination Result 2011.



Click Here To HSBTE 6th Semester Exam Result 2011



Status of Technical Education

At the time of inception of Haryana as a separate state in 1966, there were only 6 polytechnics (Govt – 4 and privately managed Govt. Aided -2) and only one Engg. College at Kurukshetra (Joint venture of State Govt. and Govt. of India). Number of professional / technical institutions in the state of Haryana with sanctioned intake offering various types of UG/PG and Diploma Level Programmes is given below : -



Sr. No.

Type of Institution	No. of Institute	Intake
1.	Engineering Colleges / University Deptts.	61	BE/B.Tech/B.Arch-20985 10% Lateral Entry- 2099
2.	MBA Colleges/ University Deptts.	56	3432
3.	MCA Colleges/ University Deptts.	35	1925
4.	Pharmacy Colleges/ University Deptts.	26	B.Pharmacy- 1470, Lateral Entry- 147
5.	Bachelor of Hotel Management & Catering Technology	3	180
6.	Polytechnics	76	24205

Read full here

SSC Junior Engineer Interview Call Letter 2011 | SSC JE Interview Schedule Sept 2011 | Staff Selection Commission Junior Engineer Interview Schedule

SSC Junior Engineer Interview Call Letter 2011 | SSC JE Interview Schedule Sept 2011 | Staff Selection Commission Junior Engineer Interview Schedule 2011



Call letters to Candidates of Northern Region qualified in written part of Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical) Examination 2010 for Interview have been issued. The interview has been scheduled to be held from for JE (Civil) and (Saturday) for JE (Electrical) at following venue:-

Staff Selection Commission

Block 12, CGO Complex

Lodhi Road, (Near Jawahar Lal Nehru Stadium),

New Delhi-110504



Candidates may download call letters by clicking here. They are advised to reach the venue on the date of interview at reporting time mentioned in the call letter.



Candidates are advised to bring original documents in support of proof of their Birth certificate (High School certificate), Educational qualification as per notice of examination possessed on or before (All years Marks Sheets and degree/Diploma certificate), OBC certificate in prescribed format as per notice of examination issued by Competent authority on or before in case of candidates belonging to OBC, Discharge certificate in case of Ex-Servicemen, other documents in support of caste, category, age relaxation, No objection certificate from Employer if working, additional qualifications and extracurricular activities, six recent passport size photographs and Bio-data form (sent alongwith call letter) filled up correctly with photograph pasted on it & their six photocopies.



Candidates may please note that they will not be allowed to appear in the interview if it is found that they are not fulfilling educational qualification, age limit or any other eligibility criterion as per notice of the examination. No change in date of interview and venue shall be allowed.

Read full here